Thursday, March 16, 2006

Did you know?

I was doing a short devotional today and I was suppose to read Matthew 18:11-14. The problem here is that my Bible which is a NIV does not have a Matthew 18:11. I thought this might have been a typo so I went online to Bible Gateway and typed in Matthew 18:11 for the NIV. There was no verse which came up. There is a Matthew 18:10 and a Matthew 18:12. How ironic. I recall from some years ago that the NIV "skipped" a verse. I had forgotten about it until now. I decided to do a little research to see what English Bibles did not have this verse. Here are my results: The Message, NIV, NLT, ESV, CEV, NIRV, & NIVUK. I thought this was interesting. Does anyone have any ideas why this is so? I plan on researching it further to find out why.

2 comments:

Applehead said...

I have a Greek Interlinear with the literal and the KJV. I will post when I get home.

Applehead said...

ok The Greek Says this:
"Is come For the Son of Man to save the thing having been lost."

The literal version says:
"For the Son of man has come to save the thing which has been lost."

I haven't really noticed this before, I take it to mean that Jesus came to save what was lost and the thing being the union with God, After man had sinned, then the union went bye, bye.....Then Jesus came down out of heaven to die and that we would die with Him, to have HIs life live in us, not Adam's. To take part of a diffrent Life source. Not from the old man but the New Man. To be gathered up into the One Body, with one head(being Jesus).That being what the church is supposed to be.

Ok there you have my explaination.
I just wanted to be sure I explained it. I have a NRSV that I just pulled down and it wasn't in there either.
See you in a week or so.